150:5

From: Richard S. Holmes (rsholmes_at_MailBox.Syr.Edu)
Date: Thu Jan 31 2002 - 18:42:30 PST

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A classic "proof" that 0 = 1 goes as follows:

1j = 1j         property of equality
1j-1j = 0       subtract 1j from both sides
(1-1)j = 0      distributivity of subtraction
0j = 0          1-1 = 0
j = 0/0 = 0j    divide both sides by 0
1 = 0   QED     divide both sides by j

The fallacy is of course that fantasy subtraction (and addition) are
not distributive.  Future rule writers would do well to bear this in
mind.

--
- Rich Holmes
  Syracuse, NY

--
Rule Date: 2002-02-01 02:42:41 GMT

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