From: Ed Murphy (emurphy42_at_socal.rr.com)
Date: Mon Feb 04 2002 - 14:21:15 PST
Here is another "proof" that 1 = 0:
j*0 = 1 (definition of j)
(j*0)*0 = 1*0 (multiply both sides by 0)
j*(0*0) = 0 (associativity of multiplication)
j*0 = 0 (replace 0*0 with 0)
1 = 0 (definition of j) QED
The fallacy is that multiplication is not associative.
The next valid rule must either prove or disprove that
fc + rc = (f+r)c unless c is a fantasy number
and the next valid rule after that must either prove or disprove that
(fr)c = f(rc) unless (f = 0 and c is a fantasy number)
or (f is a fantasy number and c = 0)
--
Ed Murphy <emurphy42_at_socal.rr.com> "I'm not sure I can go through
http://members.fortunecity.com/emurphy/ with it. Leave, I mean."
--
Rule Date: 2002-02-04 22:23:30 GMT
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